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From the confidential transactions article:
C' = C - 1HThen I provide a ring signature over{C, C’}.If C was a commitment to 1 then I do not know its discrete log, but C’ becomes a commitment to 0 and I do know its discrete log (just the blinding factor). If C was a commitment to 0 I know its discrete log, and I don’t for C’. If it was a commitment to any other amount, none of the result will be zero and I won’t be able to sign.
What if C and C' are commitments to 0 and -1? Then if I can sign, that means the ring signature is a proof is over {0,-1}. I'm probably missing something, so please tell me, why can't the amount be -1 in this proof?
I don't understand your question. The quote literally states what happens if C is a commitment to 0. – Pieter Wuille – 2017-06-01T16:04:37.997
Just edited it, maybe clearer? May also be showing my misunderstanding. I'm wondering why C, C' proves a commitment to 0 or 1 and not -1, 0. – Jimmy Song – 2017-06-01T16:12:22.930